25 IELTS Listening Part 4 Practice Tests with Answers
IELTS Listening Part 4 is the hardest part of the IELTS Listening test. It is a single talk by one speaker, usually a short university lecture on an academic subject. Topics include the natural sciences, social sciences, history, technology, business, and the arts. Question types are mostly note completion, summary completion, flow chart completion, and short-answer questions. Unlike Parts 1–3, there is no pause in the middle of the recording, so you need strong note-taking and prediction skills to follow it from start to end.
This article gives you 25 IELTS Listening Part 4 audio recordings with all their questions and answers. Across the 25 audios, you will get 230 sub-questions of focused practice. Part 4 is the same in IELTS Academic and IELTS General Training, so this practice works for both.
Audio 1
Section 4. Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Q1. 31 What is the primary reason urban areas become warmer than rural ones?
a) Industrial pollution
b) Heat-absorbing materials
c) A high concentration of people
Show answer
b
Q2. 32 According to the speaker, the "canyon effect" in cities is caused by
a) narrow streets and tall buildings
b) a lack of natural ventilation
c) the widespread use of concrete
Show answer
a
Q3. 33 Higher temperatures in cities directly lead to
a) an immediate drop in air quality
b) more demand for air conditioning
c) longer periods of low rainfall
Show answer
b
Q4. 34 How does the Urban Heat Island effect impact local waterways?
a) It causes rivers to dry up faster in summer.
b) It increases the evaporation rate from lakes.
c) It raises the temperature of storm runoff.
Show answer
c
Q5. 35 The speaker mentions that "green roofs" are beneficial because they
a) are cheaper to install than traditional roofs.
b) reduce the building's heat absorption.
c) provide habitats for various species.
Show answer
b
Questions 36-40. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
Urban Heat Island (UHI) Mitigation Strategies
Reflective surfaces:
• Painting roofs white can reflect _______ (36) away from the building.
• Helps to lower the overall _______ (37) of the surrounding environment.
Vegetation:
• Planting more trees increases _______ (38) for pedestrians.
• Plants cool the air through a process known as _______ (39).
Pavements:
• Replacing traditional asphalt with _______ (40) materials allows water to seep through and cool the ground.
Show answers
36. sunlight
37. temperature
38. shade
39. transpiration
40. permeable
Audio 2
Section 4. Questions 31-40
Questions 31-40. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
Gamification in Business
Internal applications (Corporate Training)
• Onboarding: replaced manuals with platforms where employees earn points.
• Gives new employees a feeling of _______ (31).
• Cybersecurity: a simulated attack increased staff _______ (32) of digital threats.
External applications (Customer Engagement)
• Coffee shop app: customers collect _______ (33) to get free drinks.
• Health insurance: an app measures daily _______ (34) to reduce premium costs.
Principles for successful gamification
• Should encourage _______ (35) instead of just competition.
• Must offer users instant _______ (36) when a task is completed.
• Early systems failed because offering a _______ (37) was not a meaningful reward.
• Rewards must have real value, such as a _______ (38) or extra time off.
• Poorly designed targets can cause unnecessary _______ (39) for workers.
• When employees feel constantly monitored, it can lower _______ (40).
Show answers
31. achievement
32. awareness
33. stars
34. footsteps
35. collaboration
36. feedback
37. badge
38. bonus
39. stress
40. morale
Audio 3
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-40. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
Space Medicine: The Effects of Microgravity
The Skeletal System
• Lack of gravity removes mechanical stress from bones.
• Bone mass is lost rapidly, especially in weight-bearing areas like the _______ (31) and lower spine.
• A specific _______ (32) rich in calcium is required but is insufficient on its own.
The Cardiovascular System
• The absence of gravity causes a _______ (33) shift towards the chest and head.
• Astronauts often suffer from a puffy face and congested sinuses.
• The _______ (34) muscle may shrink due to a decreased workload.
• The body mistakenly reduces the total blood _______ (35) in response to upper body swelling.
The Muscular System
• Antigravity muscles weaken and experience rapid _______ (36).
Countermeasures
• Astronauts must perform daily _______ (37) for roughly two hours.
• Treadmills use bungee _______ (38) to simulate gravity's pull.
• Strength training devices use vacuum _______ (39) to provide resistance.
• Future solutions may include a _______ (40) to create artificial gravity.
Show answers
31. pelvis
32. diet
33. fluid
34. heart
35. volume
36. atrophy
37. exercise
38. cords
39. cylinders
40. centrifuge
Audio 4
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-40. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
The Brooklyn Bridge
Background
• Designed by John Roebling to cross the East River.
• The river was too full of {traffic} to build a conventional bridge.
• John Roebling died from an {infection} before construction began.
Construction phase
• Foundations built using large wooden structures called {caissons}.
• Workers suffered from a mysterious illness known as the {bends}.
• After Washington Roebling fell ill, his {wife} managed the daily operations.
• She developed a strong understanding of {engineering} to relay messages.
Design and Materials
• The bridge was innovative because it used cables made of {steel}.
• Previously, bridges had mostly relied on {iron}.
Completion and Impact
• The opening ceremony included a massive display of {fireworks}.
• The bridge quickly became a symbol of {optimism} for the growing city.
Audio 5
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-36. Complete the notes below. Write one word only.
Early 20th Century: Scientific Management
• Main goal was to maximize _______ (31)
• The layout made supervision easy
• Lack of interaction negatively affected _______ (32)
1950s: ‘Office Landscape’ (Germany)
• Desks were separated by _______ (33) rather than walls
• Aimed to encourage _______ (34) between different departments
• Major problem for workers was high levels of _______ (35)
1960s: The Action Office
• Introduced partitions (cubicles) to provide workers with _______ (36)
• Companies misused the design to save space
Show answers
31. efficiency
32. creativity
33. plants
34. collaboration
35. noise
36. privacy
Questions 37-40. Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Q1. 37 What does the speaker say is the main benefit of Activity-Based Working?
a) It reduces the company's real estate costs.
b) It improves employee morale through autonomy.
c) It guarantees better focus for complex tasks.
Show answer
b
Q2. 38 According to the speaker, Activity-Based Working requires
a) a large budget for new furniture.
b) managers who trust their employees.
c) advanced technology for booking desks.
Show answer
b
Q3. 39 The concept of 'biophilic design' involves
a) adding more plants to individual desks.
b) using natural light and sustainable materials.
c) creating outdoor workspaces for staff.
Show answer
b
Q4. 40 What is the most likely future role of the office, according to experts?
a) It will be entirely replaced by remote working.
b) It will be primarily used for individual, focused work.
c) It will serve as a place for social interaction and team building.
Show answer
c
Audio 6
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Q1. 31 Where did the Forest School concept originally develop?
a) Sweden
b) Denmark
c) the UK
Show answer
b
Q2. 32 What is a fundamental characteristic of Forest Schools today?
a) They consist of occasional field trips.
b) They involve regular, long-term visits.
c) They require specialized outdoor clothing.
Show answer
b
Q3. 33 What determines the activities in a Forest School session?
a) the children's current interests
b) a rigid scientific curriculum
c) the facilitator's daily plan
Show answer
a
Q4. 34 According to studies, what physical benefit is associated with Forest Schools?
a) faster physical growth
b) a decrease in childhood illnesses
c) improved athletic performance
Show answer
b
Q5. 35 The psychological benefits are most noticeable in children who
a) struggle in formal academic settings.
b) are naturally extroverted and social.
c) lack basic communication skills.
Show answer
a
Questions 36-40. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
Challenges of the Forest School Model
• Location: Schools in _______ (36) areas may find it difficult to access appropriate woodlands.
• Staff Training: Teachers must obtain a specific _______ (37) to lead groups safely, which can be costly.
• Assessment: The lack of a structured curriculum makes it hard to use standard _______ (38) to measure student progress.
• This difficulty in measurement often creates conflict with educational _______ (39).
• Despite these issues, the _______ (40) of the movement is increasing.
Show answers
36. urban
37. certification
38. testing
39. authorities
40. popularity
Audio 7
Section 4. Questions 31-40
Questions 31-34. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Q1. 31 What is the primary motivation for most traditional manufacturers to adopt sustainable supply chains?
a) Pressure from government regulations
b) Consumer demand for eco-friendly products
c) The desire to reduce long-term operational costs
Show answer
c
Q2. 32 The speaker points out that early attempts at sustainable sourcing often failed because
a) suppliers lacked the necessary technology.
b) managers underestimated the complexity of the network.
c) there was a lack of clear industry standards.
Show answer
a
Q3. 33 What surprised researchers about the transition process?
a) It took less time than originally predicted.
b) Smaller companies adapted more easily than larger ones.
c) The initial financial investment was relatively low.
Show answer
c
Q4. 34 According to the speaker, what is the role of third-party auditors?
a) To provide training for factory workers
b) To ensure compliance with environmental targets
c) To negotiate contracts with new suppliers
Show answer
a
Questions 35-40. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
Transitioning to Sustainable Supply Chains
Common Mistakes
• Focusing only on the final product rather than the entire _______ (35)
• Failing to establish a clear _______ (36) channel with local suppliers
• Expecting a rapid return on _______ (37)
Effective Strategies
• Conducting a comprehensive risk _______ (38) before making changes
• Implementing tracking software to monitor _______ (39) in real time
• Fostering a culture of _______ (40) among all stakeholders
Show answers
35. lifecycle
36. communication
37. investment
38. assessment
39. inventory
40. transparency
Audio 8
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-40. Complete the notes below. Write no more than two words for each answer.
Kelp Forests: An Overview
Characteristics and Importance
• Kelp is a type of large brown algae that grows in shallow water.
• It attaches to rocks using a specialized structure known as a _______ (31).
• Kelp forests act as a foundational species and provide a vital _______ (32) for many marine animals.
• They help mitigate climate change by absorbing large amounts of _______ (33).
Threats to Kelp Forests
• Rise in sea temperatures: kelp is highly vulnerable to ocean _______ (34).
• Herbivore grazing: there has been an explosion in the population of _______ (35).
• This overpopulation is primarily caused by a lack of natural _______ (36).
• Pollution: agricultural runoff causes algal blooms which prevent _______ (37) from reaching the kelp.
Restoration Strategies
• Seeding new forests: scientists are cultivating kelp spores in _______ (38) before placing them in the ocean.
• Reintroducing species: bringing back natural hunters can help restore the ecological _______ (39).
• Commercial harvesting: collecting the problematic herbivores for human _______ (40) is becoming more popular.
Show answers
31. holdfast
32. habitat
33. carbon dioxide
34. warming
35. sea urchins
36. predators
37. sunlight
38. laboratories
39. balance
40. consumption
Audio 9
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
Biomimicry in Engineering
Basic Principles
• Early aviation pioneers observed the flight of _______ (31) to design airplane wings.
• Species that survive possess mechanisms that are highly _______ (32).
Three levels of application:
• Mimicking the physical _______ (33) of an organism.
• Mimicking a process (e.g., how a spider makes a web).
• Mimicking an entire _______ (34) to understand balanced interactions.
Bullet Train Example
• Early trains caused a loud noise when leaving tunnels.
• Redesigning the train's nose to match a bird's _______ (35) solved the pressure problem.
Show answers
31. pigeons
32. efficient
33. form
34. ecosystem
35. beak
Questions 36-40. Complete the table below. Write one word only for each answer.
| Organism | Application | Key benefit |
|---|---|---|
| Humpback whale | Wind turbine _______ (36) | Generates more _______ (37) at low wind speeds |
| Termites | Building ventilation | Dramatic reduction in _______ (38) usage |
| Lotus flower | Exterior _______ (39) | Lowers the cost of _______ (40) |
| Namib Desert beetle | Tents or roof tiles | Provides drinking water in dry areas |
Show answers
36. blades
37. power
38. energy
39. paint
40. maintenance
Audio 10
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35
Complete the table below.
Write no more than two words for each answer.
| Subject | Details | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Natural dyes | extracted from plants and _______ (31) | were often very _______ (32) and prone to fading |
| Perkin's research | intended to produce a synthetic treatment for _______ (33) | experiment failed and left a dark _______ (34) |
| Commercialization | Perkin established a _______ (35) near London | popularity surged after Queen Victoria wore a mauve dress |
Show answers
31. insects
32. expensive
33. malaria
34. sludge
35. factory
Questions 36-40
Complete the flow chart below.
Write no more than two words for each answer.
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Audio 11
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-32. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
Background
• Traditional agriculture requires vast amounts of land and _______ (31)
• The concept was originally proposed for a futuristic _______ (32)
Show answers
31. water
32. skyscraper|building
Questions 33-37. Complete the table below. Write one word only for each answer.
| Early concepts | – Initially used primarily for growing _______ (33) – Relied mostly on natural sunlight |
|---|---|
| Technological advances | – Introduction of LED lighting – Allowed precise control over _______ (34) |
| Current status | – Most successful with leafy _______ (35) – High initial costs remain a major _______ (36) |
| Future outlook | – Integration into residential buildings – May eventually include farming of _______ (37) |
Show answers
33. tomatoes / tomato
34. temperature / temperatures
35. greens / green
36. barrier / obstacle
37. fish / fishes
Question 38. Choose TWO letters A-F.
Q1. Question 38: Which TWO environmental benefits of vertical farming does the speaker emphasize?
a) reduction in fossil fuel use for transport
b) prevention of soil erosion
c) elimination of agricultural runoff
d) preservation of natural habitats
e) decrease in urban air pollution
f) lower overall energy consumption
Show answers
a, c
Questions 39-40. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Q2. 39 What does the speaker consider the biggest misconception about vertical farming?
a) that it can replace traditional farming entirely
b) that it produces less nutritious food
c) that it requires little human labor
Show answer
a
Q3. 40 What does the speaker suggest is needed for vertical farming to become mainstream?
a) stricter government regulations
b) more investment in renewable energy
c) changes in consumer dietary habits
Show answer
b
Audio 12
Section 4. Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Q1. 31 According to the speaker, early video games did not cause concern because
a) they were mainly played by adults.
b) their graphics lacked realism.
c) they did not feature violent themes.
Show answer
b
Q2. 32 The speaker mentions the 1990s as a time when
a) the industry was taken over by government bodies.
b) a moral panic led to the creation of rating systems.
c) game sales dropped significantly.
Show answer
b
Q3. 33 How does the North American ESRB system operate?
a) Government reviewers play the games entirely.
b) Publishers provide footage of the most intense scenes.
c) Independent panels test games with young players.
Show answer
b
Q4. 34 The European PEGI system is notable for its
a) reliance on written descriptions for parents.
b) use of specific symbols to explain content.
c) strict banning of violent games.
Show answer
b
Q5. 35 In Japan's CERO system, games are most likely to be censored due to
a) references to real-world narcotics.
b) excessive amounts of graphic violence.
c) bad language and swearing.
Show answer
a
Questions 36-40. Complete the notes below. Write no more than two words for each answer.
Modern Challenges in Game Ratings
Digital transition:
• For digital games, developers now obtain a rating by filling out a _______ (36).
• Rating systems are unable to evaluate _______ (37) because player interactions are unpredictable.
• Some critics compare randomized in-game purchases to _______ (38).
Psychological insights:
• Researchers state that the _______ (39) of violent acts in a game is more significant than the overall quantity.
Conclusion:
• Rating systems remain ineffective without the supervision of _______ (40) in the home.
Show answers
36. questionnaire|survey
37. online chat|chat
38. gambling|betting
39. context
40. parents|families
Audio 13
Section 4. Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
The First Transatlantic Telegraph Cable
Background and Early Attempts
• Before the cable, communication relied on _______ (31) which was very slow.
• Copper wires were coated in latex to provide _______ (32).
• An outer layer made of _______ (33) protected the cable from damage.
• The 1857 attempt failed when the cable broke due to high _______ (34).
• The 1858 cable failed after three weeks because the _______ (35) was too high.
Show answers
31. ships
32. insulation
33. iron
34. tension
35. voltage
Questions 36-40. Complete the table below. Write one word only for each answer.
| Category | Detail / Impact |
|---|---|
| The 1866 Expedition | Used one enormous ship to carry a _______ (36) cable. |
| The Civil War | Resulted in a significant _______ (37) to the project. |
| Business | Allowed financial _______ (38) in different countries to coordinate. |
| Media | Transformed _______ (39) since news could be printed the next day. |
| Legacy | Laid the groundwork for our modern interconnected _______ (40). |
Show answers
36. heavier
37. delay
38. markets
39. journalism
40. world
Audio 14
Section 4. Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Q1. 31 Before Edward Tolman's research, it was widely believed that navigation was based on
a) creating detailed mental images.
b) memorizing sequences of movements.
c) observing the environment's geometry.
Show answer
b
Q2. 32 What did Tolman's experiments with rats prove?
a) They required immediate rewards to learn a maze.
b) They could build a mental layout of their surroundings.
c) They preferred to follow familiar routes.
Show answer
b
Q3. 33 The study of London taxi drivers showed that their hippocampus was
a) larger than that of an average person.
b) more active when they were resting.
c) physically unchanged by their training.
Show answer
a
Q4. 34 The physical change in the taxi drivers' brains is given as an example of
a) genetic inheritance.
b) cognitive decline.
c) neuroplasticity.
Show answer
c
Q5. 35 According to some neuroscientists, a heavy reliance on GPS could
a) improve our ability to focus on traffic.
b) lead to a reduction in natural spatial skills.
c) cause an increase in the size of the hippocampus.
Show answer
b
Questions 36-40. Complete the table below. Write no more than two words for each answer.
Navigation Strategies
| Strategy | Primary Cue | Key Characteristic |
|---|---|---|
| Route-based | Visual _______ (36) | Depends on sequential memory; fails if cues are _______ (37) |
| Survey-based | _______ (38) | Acts like an aerial view; useful for finding a _______ (39) |
| Habitual | Routine environments | Relies on _______ (40); needs little conscious thought |
Show answers
36. landmarks
37. obscured / removed
38. cardinal directions
39. shortcut
40. muscle memory
Audio 15
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-32. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Q1. 31 According to the speaker, which industry first introduced the subscription model?
a) software
b) publishing
c) fitness
Show answer
b
Q2. 32 In the subscription economy, a company's primary focus shifts to:
a) customer retention
b) the point of sale
c) immediate profit
Show answer
a
Questions 33-40. Complete the notes below. Write no more than two words for each answer.
The Subscription Economy
Benefits for businesses
• It provides a reliable cash flow, enabling better financial _______ (33).
• Companies can collect consumer _______ (34) to help personalise the service and increase loyalty.
Challenges for businesses
• Companies must keep their _______ (35) as low as possible.
• Businesses often face a high cost for customer _______ (36) initially.
Types of subscription models
• Replenishment model: delivers consumable goods and offers customers greater _______ (37).
• Curation model: delivers tailored products and relies on the element of _______ (38) to engage users.
Future threats
• Consumers are experiencing subscription _______ (39) due to too many monthly payments.
• New government _______ (40) on automatic renewals may affect profits.
Show answers
33. forecasting
34. data
35. churn rate
36. acquisition
37. convenience
38. surprise
39. fatigue
40. regulations
Audio 16
Section 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-40. Complete the notes below. Write no more than two words for each answer.
The History of Cartography
Early Map-making
• Ancient Babylonians used tablets made of _______ (31) to create the earliest maps.
• The ancient Greeks were the first to use _______ (32) to improve map accuracy.
• Ptolemy created a _______ (33) system that became the basis for modern latitude and longitude.
The Middle Ages and the Renaissance
• In the 15th century, the invention of the _______ (34) allowed maps to be widely distributed.
• The Mercator projection (1569) was uniquely beneficial for _______ (35) navigating the oceans.
• A major flaw of the Mercator projection was the _______ (36) of land sizes near the poles.
Modern Cartography
• In the 20th century, _______ (37) photography greatly improved the accuracy of topographical maps.
• Today, map-makers rely on GIS, which is a specialized _______ (38) that handles large amounts of data.
• Because map-makers must choose what information to include, every map has an element of _______ (39).
• Ultimately, rather than being perfectly objective, a map tells a particular _______ (40).
Show answers
31. clay
32. mathematics
33. grid
34. printing press
35. sailors
36. distortion
37. aerial
38. software
39. bias
40. story
Audio 17
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-40. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Strategies
Obstructionist Approach
• Main priority is economic profit.
• Response to problems is typically _______ (31).
• Advantage: keeps operating _______ (32) very low.
• Disadvantage: risk of severe public backlash if exposed.
Defensive Approach
• Strict compliance with the law.
• Focus is on protection against _______ (33).
• Tends to exploit legal loopholes.
• Disadvantage: can damage the _______ (34) if public expectations are high.
Accommodative Approach
• Aims to balance economic goals and social expectations.
• Will do more than the legal minimum due to external _______ (35) (e.g., from NGOs).
• Maintains _______ (36) communication with stakeholders.
• Advantage: helps to maintain customer _______ (37).
Proactive Approach
• CSR is part of the organization's core _______ (38).
• Actively seeks ways to help society and the environment.
• Requires high initial _______ (39).
• Employees tend to be highly _______ (40).
Show answers
31. denial
32. costs
33. lawsuits
34. brand
35. pressure
36. transparent
37. loyalty
38. mission
39. investment
40. motivated
Audio 18
Section 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Q1. 31 How does the lecturer distinguish a crisis from a risk?
a) A crisis is always predictable.
b) A crisis involves a major disruption to normal operations.
c) A crisis only affects public relations.
Show answer
b
Q2. 32 According to the lecturer, who should be included in a crisis management team?
a) Only top-level executives
b) External consultants and advisors
c) Employees from various departments
Show answer
c
Q3. 33 What is considered the most important action during the first 24 hours of a crisis?
a) Identifying who is at fault
b) Communicating quickly and openly
c) Reassuring the financial investors
Show answer
b
Q4. 34 Why is a trained spokesperson crucial during a crisis?
a) To guarantee that the company speaks with a single voice
b) To prevent the media from asking difficult questions
c) To hide sensitive information from the public
Show answer
a
Q5. 35 What is the primary purpose of the post-crisis phase?
a) To discipline employees who made mistakes
b) To compensate affected stakeholders
c) To extract lessons to improve future plans
Show answer
c
Questions 36-40. Complete the notes below. Write no more than two words for each answer.
Organizational Resilience
• Goes beyond merely surviving; focuses on adapting and becoming _______ (36)
• Requires a corporate culture that is _______ (37)
• Promotes _______ (38) among all staff members
• Empowers employees to make decisions at a _______ (39)
• Example: Managers can quickly find alternative _______ (40) if global chains fail.
Show answers
36. stronger
37. flexible
38. innovation
39. local level
40. suppliers
Audio 19
Section 4. Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35. Complete the notes below. Write no more than two words for each answer.
The Evolution of Urban Green Spaces
19th Century
• Rapid city expansion led to major problems with pollution and {disease}.
• The 'Parks Movement' was started to create areas for {recreation}.
• Early parks were frequently financed by wealthy {merchants} to improve the city's image.
20th Century and Today
• Planners shifted their focus to include {wildlife} conservation within city limits.
• Today, green spaces are valued for reducing the urban {heat} island effect.
Questions 36-40. Complete the table below. Write no more than two words for each answer.
| Type | Primary function | Key feature | Example location |
|---|---|---|---|
| Pocket Parks | Community gathering | Built on _______ (36) that have been repurposed | New York |
| Greenways | Active transport | Connects different _______ (37) | London |
| Botanical Gardens | Education and research | Contains collections of _______ (38) | Singapore |
| Rooftop Gardens | Climate control | Reduces _______ (39) | Tokyo |
| Urban Forests | Biodiversity | High density of _______ (40) | Melbourne |
Show answers
36. vacant lots
37. neighborhoods / neighbourhoods
38. rare plants
39. building emissions
40. trees
Audio 20
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-40. Complete the notes below. Write no more than two words for each answer.
PEATLANDS AND CARBON SEQUESTRATION
Characteristics of peatlands
• present in almost every country as bogs, fens, and swamps
• waterlogged conditions mean a lack of _______ (31) stops plants from decaying fully
Significance
• they store roughly double the amount of carbon found in the world's _______ (32)
Threats
• drained for agriculture, notably for producing _______ (33) in the tropics
• harvested commercially for horticulture or to be burnt as _______ (34)
• drained peat decays quickly, emitting large amounts of _______ (35)
• susceptible to underground fires which create dangerous _______ (36)
Restoration and Future Actions
• the main restoration method is called _______ (37)
• involves raising water levels by blocking drainage _______ (38)
• involves encouraging the growth of _______ (39) to keep the ground wet and acidic
• a major future goal is the accurate _______ (40) of undiscovered peatlands globally
Show answers
31. oxygen
32. forests
33. palm oil
34. fuel
35. greenhouse gases
36. smoke
37. rewetting
38. channels
39. sphagnum moss
40. mapping
Audio 21
Section 4. Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35. Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
Q1. 31 Historically, the main reason for the decline in beaver populations was
a) the destruction of their habitat.
b) the demand for their pelts.
c) competition with native species.
Show answer
b
Q2. 32 What is the primary ecological benefit of beaver dams?
a) They provide drinking water for local communities.
b) They reduce the impact of drought.
c) They decrease the likelihood of downstream floods.
Show answer
c
Q3. 33 How do beaver wetlands assist the agricultural sector?
a) By filtering out harmful chemicals from the water.
b) By providing a natural source of fertilizer.
c) By increasing the amount of arable land.
Show answer
a
Q4. 34 Farmers are primarily concerned that beavers will
a) eat their valuable crops.
b) cause water to cover their farmland.
c) spread diseases to livestock.
Show answer
b
Q5. 35 To protect important trees from beaver damage, landowners are advised to
a) move the trees to a safe location.
b) paint the tree trunks with a repellent.
c) cover the lower trunks with metal mesh.
Show answer
c
Questions 36-40. Complete the table below. Write one word only for each answer.
Impacts of Beaver Reintroduction
| Area of impact | Observed benefits | Ongoing research |
|---|---|---|
| Wildlife | Provides new habitats for insects and _______ (36) | The impact on the traditional routes of migratory _______ (37) |
| Water Quality | Acts as a filter to remove _______ (38) | Long-term changes to the _______ (39) of the water |
| Water Flow | Reduces the risk of _______ (40) during heavy rain | The reliability of artificial barriers |
Show answers
36. amphibians / Amphibians
37. fish / Fish
38. pollutants / Pollutants
39. temperature / Temperature
40. flooding / Flooding
Audio 22
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-36. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
Early Windmills
• First recorded in Persia (9th century)
• Had a vertical axis
• Sails were constructed from wood or _______ (31)
• Used mainly to pump water and grind _______ (32)
European Windmills
• Appeared in the 12th century with a _______ (33) axis
• The 'post mill': the whole structure could be rotated to face the _______ (34)
• The Dutch 'smock mill': only the _______ (35) needed turning, so mills could be larger
• Used extensively in the Netherlands for _______ (36)
Show answers
31. reeds
32. grain
33. horizontal
34. wind
35. cap
36. drainage
Questions 37-40. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Q1. 37 The decline of traditional windmills in the 19th century was caused by
a) a lack of flat land
b) the invention of the steam engine
c) a decrease in average wind speeds
Show answer
b
Q2. 38 The development of modern wind turbines was initially triggered by
a) the 1970s oil crisis
b) a desire to preserve traditional designs
c) advancements in fiberglass technology
Show answer
a
Q3. 39 According to the speaker, how do modern wind turbines differ from traditional windmills?
a) They are designed to operate in weaker winds
b) They change wind energy into electricity
c) They are built exclusively from carbon fiber
Show answer
b
Q4. 40 What is mentioned as an advantage of airborne wind energy systems?
a) They can be installed in urban areas
b) They operate silently
c) They use fewer materials
Show answer
c
Audio 23
Section 4. Part 4: Questions 31-40
Questions 31-40. Complete the notes below. Write one word only for each answer.
The Psychology of Boredom
Definition and History
• boredom is the desire to do something satisfying when unable to do so
• accompanied by a lack of _______ (31) and a distorted sense of time
• historically associated with poor mental health and _______ (32)
Evolutionary Purpose
• acts as a psychological _______ (33) to warn us about our current state
• tells us when a situation is no longer _______ (34)
• encourages individuals to _______ (35) new environments for resources
Main Benefits
• strongly connected to an increase in _______ (36)
• encourages _______ (37), which helps the brain make new connections
• makes people feel more _______ (38) so they can regain a sense of purpose
Boredom in the Modern World
• smartphones offer an immediate distraction from mental downtime
• instantly curing boredom can prevent deep _______ (39)
• experiencing boredom is essential for children to build _______ (40)
Show answers
31. stimulation
32. addiction
33. alarm
34. meaningful
35. explore
36. creativity
37. daydreaming
38. altruistic
39. reflection
40. skills
Audio 24
Section 4. Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
Q1. 31 What was the main reason the 1977 discovery of hydrothermal vents was surprising?
a) It was made by geologists instead of biologists.
b) It proved that life could exist without sunlight.
c) It occurred in the Galapagos Rift.
Show answer
b
Q2. 32 How does the water in hydrothermal vents become heated?
a) Through friction created by tectonic plates.
b) By coming into close proximity with magma.
c) Through chemical reactions with dissolved minerals.
Show answer
b
Q3. 33 What is the primary difference between black and white smokers?
a) The temperature of the water they emit.
b) The depth at which they are typically found.
c) The speed at which the water shoots upward.
Show answer
a
Q4. 34 How do giant tubeworms survive without a digestive system?
a) They absorb nutrients directly from the water.
b) They rely on internal bacteria to produce food.
c) They consume smaller organisms whole.
Show answer
b
Q5. 35 Why is the study of hydrothermal vents significant for astrobiologists?
a) It provides a testing ground for space exploration equipment.
b) It helps explain the origin of water in the solar system.
c) It suggests that similar ecosystems might exist on other planets or moons.
Show answer
c
Questions 36-40. Complete the table below. Write one word only for each answer.
| Feature | Black Smokers | White Smokers |
|---|---|---|
| Temperature | extremely hot (up to 400°C) | relatively _______ (36) |
| Emissions | iron and _______ (37) | barium, calcium, and silicon |
| Chimney appearance | dark | lighter colored |
| Growth rate | up to a _______ (38) per year | slower rate |
| Surrounding life | dominated by giant _______ (39) | often inhabited by specific species of _______ (40) |
Show answers
36. cooler
37. sulfur
38. meter
39. tubeworms / tube worms
40. crabs
Audio 25
Section 4. Questions 31-40
Questions 31-40. Complete the notes below. Write no more than two words for each answer.
Sea Turtle Migration and Navigation
Natal Homing
• Female turtles return to the exact beach where they _______ (31) to lay eggs
• They travel thousands of miles across the open ocean
Navigation Mechanisms
• Adults use the Earth's _______ (32) as an internal compass
• Hatchlings locate the sea by moving toward the brightest _______ (33)
• Young turtles drift in ocean _______ (34) in order to save energy
Modern Threats
• Hatchlings are often disoriented by _______ (35) near the beach
• Adult turtles are frequently trapped in _______ (36)
• The sex of the young is determined by the _______ (37) of the sand
• Climate change results in an excess of _______ (38) being born
Conservation Efforts
• Scientists attach small _______ (39) to the shells of the turtles
• Data is used to map migratory _______ (40) in international waters
Show answers
31. hatched
32. magnetic field
33. horizon
34. currents
35. artificial lighting
36. fishing nets
37. temperature
38. females
39. transmitters
40. corridors